I don’t understand, there is no proof of genocide in Israel but YEARS of evidence against China and Russia. Can anyone explain this to me?
I don’t understand, there is no proof of genocide in Israel but YEARS of evidence against China and Russia. Can anyone explain this to me?
Follow this simple rule for clarity, replace the names and ethnic background of the parties in question with A and B, acknowledge that A and B have historical conflict and are distinct ethnic groups but set aside their cultural characteristics and specifics. Now take the actions of A towards B and compare them to historical examples. Under jurisprudence there can be no a priori exoneration of any group due to historical factors, actors must be judged solely on their actions.
The ICC follows “The definition contained in Article II of the Convention describes genocide as a crime committed with the intent to destroy a national, ethnic, racial or religious group, in whole or in part. It does not include political groups or so called “cultural genocide”.” And Israel is walking a fine line at the moment by claiming that they are exterminating a political group “Hamas” but their actions towards the civilian population will determine their guilt or innocence in the eyes of history and the international community. The ICC’s job is to collect all the facts that we civilians can not, and make a determination based on those facts. If you believe Israel is innocent, you should not worry as the facts will clearly exonerate them and so will history be written.